Discussion»Statements»Rosie's Corner» Why is it that KNOW-IT-ALLS always know so much less than those who don't know it all? I guess it's inverse proportion?
Why is it that KNOW-IT-ALLS always know so much less than those who don't know it all? I guess it's inverse proportion?
The MORE you think you know the LESS you actually do? If true is it true for all time and all place and all of them or only a specific unique singular know-it-all? Who is the most IGNORANT know-it-all in your opinion?
