One of their arguments is that the commonwealth "excuse" doesn't extend to the commonwealths of Kentucky, Massachusetts, Pennsylvania, and Virginia. While recognizing a historical necessity for the origin of the restriction, they consider it high time for it to be reversed now in the 21st century ( Some people even claim that racism is behind the restriction. This question of presidential elections, while very closely related to the issue of Puerto Rican statehood, is separate and self-standing for the purpose of this post: the right to vote in US presidential elections before and/without statehood.
Without either siding with them or opposing them, do you believe by law, they are being denied a right that is available to others?
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