Discussion » Statements » Rosie's Corner » "With malice toward none and charity toward all" or close to that is what it used to be. When did it flip to the opposite and why?

"With malice toward none and charity toward all" or close to that is what it used to be. When did it flip to the opposite and why?

With charity toward none and malice toward all? Well not all. Only those whom the powers that be dislike are maliced. A vast array/variety/cornucopia/potpourri of those who are and that which is severely disliked. Charity begins at home of course but is reserved for the wealthy when home is the US of A. By the time that's all used up by the wealthy there is none left for the rest of us. SIGH.

Posted - January 18, 2018

Responses


  • 1233
    Anyone who thinks that having less money confiscated by the state is "charity", is a communist. Taking less is not a gift.

    To have that view is to deny all property rights. It is to claim that all wealth belongs to the state and that the state decides how much everyone should possess.

    The left can accept capitalism or they can die in a civil war. We're not playing games. Choose. This post was edited by Zeitgeist at January 18, 2018 4:42 PM MST
      January 18, 2018 11:03 AM MST
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  • 35550
    Taxes are not charity. 
    There are many charities that do help the poor. Our government helps the poor. Our government causes the poor as well....with NAFTA and gov regulations running good jobs off. With giving tax incentives to hire those on unemployment so they hire 3 or 5 part time workers instead of the 1 or 2 full time workers. There should be incentives for hiring Full time (40hr week) workers.
      January 18, 2018 11:11 AM MST
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