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Is there a such thing as unequal inequality? Why or why not? Examples?


Posted - September 7


  • 42570
    Mathematically, yes.

    (1 is unequal to 3) is unequal to (2 is unequal to 4).

    Note. Despite my attempts to find the alt code for 'not equal to', I could not.
      September 7, 2022 3:28 PM MDT

  • 4603
    Interesting question.
    I guess one could look at different types of inequality.

    Younger and older kids are usually unequal in many abilities - but we see that as a normal aspect of development and don't worry about it. We just sort the kids into grades on the education conveyor belt, and sort them into classes for ability (with or without the appropriate help).

    Yet if some disabled people have obstacles similar to those of a younger person, "normally able" people treat the disabled as less than equal.
    Disabled people have a much harder time getting jobs they are perfectly able to do. Many public facilities exclude them due to lack of physical access. Individuals enact acts of prejudice: ignoring, slighting, abusing, sexually harassing, assaulting, or patronising.

    There would be many examples like this: racism, misogyny, homophobia, ageism, class snobbery and its inverse, etc.

    Even though the common denominator is social inequality, the levels of what equals what are somehow different. For instance, if in China a person is Weiga, disabled and old, he or she is going to have a far worse fate. This post was edited by inky at September 11, 2022 3:39 AM MDT
      September 11, 2022 2:14 AM MDT