A slave used to be considred 3/5 of a person. What math whiz figured that out?

One who did not want the south slave holding states would not be unfairly represented in the Congress. 
Because the House was divided by the number of the population.  Each Representative/60,000 people. (This is another instruction in the Contitution done away with in 1913)

So if the were 60,000 slaves...than the Slave owners had another Representive in the House.  Does anyone believe that Congressman was going to represent the slaves or the slave owners? 
And that is why the North passed the 3/5th rule. It was a compromise from only wanting to count the free population by the North vs all by the South.  This post was edited by my2cents at June 22, 2018 4:02 PM MDT

The Three-Fifths Compromise was a compromise reached between delegates from southern states and those from northern states during the 1787 United States Constitutional Convention. The debate was over whether, and if so, how, slaves would be counted when determining a state's total population for legislative representation and taxing purposes. The issue was important, as this population number would then be used to determine the number of seats that the state would have in the United States House of Representatives for the next ten years. The effect was to give the southern states a third more seats in Congress and a third more electoral votes than if slaves had been ignored, but fewer than if slaves and free persons had been counted equally, allowing the slaveholder interests to largely dominate the government of the United States until 1861. The compromise was proposed by delegates James Wilson and Roger Sherman.

(Wikipedia)


I'd forgotten the details.

not a good one

* Probably the same one who said we'd use algebra all the time after we left school.
* Definitely an american; anyone else would've put it in metric.