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Discussion » Questions » Legal » Did guilty as sin Robert Blake ever get convicted of murder of his wife?

Did guilty as sin Robert Blake ever get convicted of murder of his wife?

Posted - August 14, 2017

Responses


  • 22891
    i would hope he did if he killed her
      August 14, 2017 12:51 PM MDT
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  • 46117
    He had witnesses telling the jury that he asked them to kill her if he paid them to do it. 

    The jury found him guilty.

    He went to jail for a year, paid the top lawyers to appeal the case, and they re-tried it and got him off on appeal.

    They couldn't prove he pulled the trigger even though he paid someone else.  They couldn't prove it to satisfy the appellate court.

    He is a pig.  He deserves to stay in jail forever.

    Then other attorneys couldn't stomach this verdict and tried him in Civil court.  He was found guilty of murder.  He is ordered to pay millions to the family of Bonnie Lee Blakely, his dead wife.

    So, now everyone knows the truth and he is alone and broke.  But free. This post was edited by WM BARR . =ABSOLUTE TRASH at August 14, 2017 7:08 PM MDT
      August 14, 2017 12:55 PM MDT
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  • 2500
    Can you show where Blake was convicted, served time and then won an appeal ?
      August 14, 2017 1:29 PM MDT
    1

  • 17592
    He was never found guilty.  His wife's family sued for wrongful death, Blake was found liable,  and the family was awarded 50 million dollars.  
      August 14, 2017 8:47 PM MDT
    0

  • 2500
    The jury figured that she had it coming to her so they acquitted Blake. 

    Seriously, he pulled an OJ Simpson, Turns out that his dearly departed wife was a con artist that was constantly sending "nudies" of herself to other men and that she had intentionally gotten pregnant to force Blake into marrying her. On top of that the only two witnesses against him were shown to be unreliable drug users so the jury voted to acquit of criminal charges. No time served, no appeal necessary.

    He did however lose the civil case that her children filed against him as the "bar" for proving civil damages is much lower than for criminal culpability. This post was edited by Salt and Red Pepper at August 14, 2017 7:08 PM MDT
      August 14, 2017 1:27 PM MDT
    2

  • 13071
    I dont think he did.
      August 14, 2017 2:16 PM MDT
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  • 16763
    Doesn't the presumption of innocence apply in the US? I'm not familiar with the case, but "not proven guilty" equals "innocent" in the eyes of the law.
      August 14, 2017 8:48 PM MDT
    0