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Discussion » Questions » Religion and Spirituality » Do you think Jesus would be pro globalization?

Do you think Jesus would be pro globalization?

Posted - June 23, 2018

Responses


  • 5835
    Nobody seems to know what that word means. It is one of those multisyllabic code words that you rattle off to sound like you know something, but it can be taken to mean almost anything.
      June 23, 2018 2:35 AM MDT
    1

  • 13395
    Seems to mean something to the people who are anti globalization. 
      June 23, 2018 2:38 AM MDT
    0

  • 5391
    Globalization of what, particularly?

    Is ‘globalization’ another term for one world order? 

    What I see of globalization is the corruption of cultures and assimilation of resources by those with means to take them for themselves. 

    What I glean from what is known of the message attributed to Jesus is that he’d be pro-peace, but that means different things to different people, and our species has been incapable of existing in peace since time immemorial. 
      June 23, 2018 6:22 AM MDT
    1

  • 13395
    I was with the Baha'i Faith people many years ago -they focus on globalization/new world order quite a bit. .

    bahaiteachings.org/globalization-welcome-new-world-order


    This post was edited by Kittigate at June 23, 2018 7:22 PM MDT
      June 23, 2018 6:30 PM MDT
    1

  • 5835
    About nine thousand years ago a guy named Kennewick paddled his canoe to a Washington beach and died there. Analysis of the bones indicate he was probably from some south Pacific island. 

    That was "globalization".
      June 23, 2018 5:07 PM MDT
    1

  • 1393
    "named Kennewick"? they must have got that from his passport which got thrown a few yards away from where he fell, as tends to happen to passports of dead or dying people, I suppose.
      June 26, 2018 11:14 AM MDT
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  • 5835
    As for what Jesus would say, he said "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations."

    ETA: I made a mistake to quote this verse. It is not so. This post was edited by Not Sure at June 26, 2018 10:45 PM MDT
      June 23, 2018 5:09 PM MDT
    2

  • 13395
    The Baha'i Faith people believe their founder -Baha'u'llah (ba howla) is the return of Jesus and they do focus on establishing globalization/new world order.

    www.bahai.org


      June 23, 2018 7:36 PM MDT
    0

  • 1393
    "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations." is an intriguing verse for at least two reasons 

    1. We can see clearly from the early part of his mission that Jesus was very strongly against extending his remit which he said was given to him by God. For example:

    a] in Matthew 15:24 Jesus declared that he "was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the nation of Israel."

    b] Even the disciples Jesus instructed very clearly according to Matthew 10:5: "Don't go to the Gentiles or the Samaritans, but ONLY to the people of Israel --God's lost sheep."

    c] To a the Gentile woman who in her pleading "came and knelt before him. “Lord, help me!” she said. 26He replied, “It is not right to take the children’s bread and toss it to the dogs.” (Matthew 15:25,26 and Mark 7:27,28)

    2. There are things about the passage, known as the "Great Commission", which are intriguing. The passage quotes Jesus instructing his disciples, in one of his post crucifixion appearances, to “go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you.” However,

    a] this goes against his strong refusal to extend his mission outside the House of Israel as in #1 above

    b] the passage appears only in the Gospel of Matthew at 28:19-20

    c] there is no post crucifixion appearance of Jesus in the oldest manuscript, the Sinai Codex of Mark

    d] according to the passage Jesus did not want a different set of the law for the Gentiles. The command says, "ALL NATIONS.....teaching them TO OBEY ALL I HAVE COMMANDED" If ONLY JEWS were meant to obey these laws, then why would Jesus have instructed Jews to teach people of all nations to OBEY these laws?

    e] the passage quotes Jesus instructing his disciples to go about "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:" However, there is no evidence in any part of the NT that any of them baptised as Jesus instructed. So either Jesus did not give the so called "Great Commission" or if he did then his followers decided to disobey his instruction.

      June 26, 2018 12:55 PM MDT
    0

  • 5835
    That verse is a forgery. Jesus was a Jew, speaking a Jewish message to Jews. It was not until Saul was called that the gospel was made available to the rest of the world.

    Ephesians 3:5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; 6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

    The line about "name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" is obviously bogus since no such concept is presented anywhere else in the bible. It is a uniquely Roman Catholic line.
      June 26, 2018 1:23 PM MDT
    1

  • 1393
    Q "Do you think Jesus would be pro globalization?"
    ===================================

    From his Great Commission it would seem he was. However, a closer examination of the Great Commission makes one wonder.

    The "Great Commission" passage quotes Jesus instructing his disciples, in one of his post crucifixion appearances, to “go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you.” However,

    1. we can see clearly from the early part of his mission that Jesus was very strongly against extending his remit which he said was given to him by God. For example:

    a] In Matthew 15:24 Jesus declared that he "was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the nation of Israel."

    b] Even the disciples Jesus instructed very clearly according to Matthew 10:5: "Don't go to the Gentiles or the Samaritans, but ONLY to the people of Israel --God's lost sheep."

    c] To a the Gentile woman who in her pleading "came and knelt before him. “Lord, help me!” she said. 26He replied, “It is not right to take the children’s bread and toss it to the dogs.” (Matthew 15:25,26 and Mark 7:27,28)

    2. The Great Commission passage appears only in the Gospel of Matthew at 28:19-20

    3. There is no post crucifixion appearance of Jesus in the oldest manuscript, the Sinai Codex of Mark

    4. According to the passage Jesus did not want a different set of the law for the Gentiles. The command says, "ALL NATIONS.....teaching them TO OBEY ALL I HAVE COMMANDED" If ONLY JEWS were meant to obey these laws, then why would Jesus have instructed Jews to teach people of all nations to OBEY these laws?

    5. The passage quotes Jesus instructing his disciples to go about "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:" However, there is no evidence in any part of the NT that any of them baptised as Jesus instructed. So either Jesus did not give the so called "Great Commission" or if he did then his followers decided to disobey his instruction.

      June 26, 2018 2:17 PM MDT
    1

  • 5835
    Speaking of baptism, consider Acts 1:5 "For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence."

    It's hard to get some people to understand that verse because they think "baptize" means in water. It does not. It only means to dip, without saying in what. So they say "I baptize you in the name of the holy ghost" and then they baptize you in water! I have met Baptists who could not even read that verse the way it is printed. They would not read the word "but" because their denomination teaches that baptism in holy spirit and baptism in water are "coequal and conecessary". 

    In Acts chapter 10 we read the story of Peter going to the house of Cornelius and saying 
    47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
    48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.

    That says he baptized them in water, right? No he didn't. He says so in the next chapter.
    15 And as I began to speak, the Holy Ghost fell on them, as on us at the beginning.
    16 Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost.
    17 Forasmuch then as God gave them the like gift as he did unto us, who believed on the Lord Jesus Christ; what was I, that I could withstand God?

    So now you have the words of Jesus and the words of Peter saying that baptism in holy spirit replaces baptism in water. But there is only one verse that mentions baptism "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost". (BTW the holy ghost does not even have a name!)
      June 26, 2018 10:59 PM MDT
    1

  • 1326
    Jesus did not get involved with worldly affairs. He steered clear of world issues, and remained neutral.. (John 15:19) This post was edited by Autumnleaves at August 15, 2018 11:57 PM MDT
      August 15, 2018 11:31 PM MDT
    1