Was Lucifer and his follower angels thrown to earth before or after the creation of Adam?

In reality, everything in scripture is speculation and myth.

Which day of 1-6?

In the beginning. Which is before even Day 1.  This post was edited by my2cents at October 21, 2018 4:14 PM MDT

Those fallen angels did procreate with humans (it's in there, look it up), giant's were born, etc.  Are we the descendents of the fallen angels? This post was edited by Benedict Arnold at October 21, 2018 6:46 PM MDT

Yes, I know.
The Nephilim. No, we are not Nephilim. They were destroyed in Noah's flood. This post was edited by my2cents at October 26, 2018 3:00 AM MDT

  Was that Noah's flood?

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Yes, the only worldwide flood.  

  How was it his?  God predicted/prophesized the flood, told Noah about the flood, caused the flood, etc. It may be accurate to refer to it as the flood of Noah's time, but in no way should it be considered "Noah's flood".  How about God's flood?
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God said it was His when he called down the rain for the first time.

  The capitalized "His" refers to God, correct?  Then we agree, it should not be referred to as Noah's flood, it was God's flood. 
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One would think so.  I may be mistaken, but my understanding of the reading is God got pissed at woman lying about what God actually said.

  How does that correlate to "Noah's flood"?  Regardless of the reasons for the flood, or any other facts about the flood, the events that took place before/during/after the floof flood, there's absolutely no way it can be construed as Noah's flood. 
~ This post was edited by Randy D at October 26, 2018 2:59 AM MDT

Why is god ascribed a gender and assumed to be male?

You are Jewish...you tell us. 

In my egalitarian conservative congregation, we use only the Lord, Adonai, or God, never him or father.

Naturally, as a Jewish congregation, you do not refer to God as Father. That is a Christian and Messianic Jewish concept. 

As I understand it goes back to the traditional gender roles and the use of masculine verbs used to describe God. 

 https://thetorah.com/the-gender-of-god/ 

On the contrary, traditional Jewish prayer and texts do use male and paternal references. Siddur sim Shalom, the conservative prayer book used for Shabbat services in many conservative synagogues, contains many references to Him and Father. Congregations like mine have made conscious organizational decisions to refer to god only in gender-neutral terms (and, by extension, the god of our forefathers, Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob AND our foremothers, Sarah, Rebecca, Leah, and Rachel) in all liturgical contexts.

Thank you, I did not know that.
If your congregation has consciously changed the terms....then I would not call it a conservative congregation at least in that issue. 

But as I described above, male is used because of the actions that are taken by God are what would be traditionally masculine actions. I posted the link as well. 

Cogregations like mine, in which men and women have equal rights of ritual participation and references to god are gender neutral, self-identify and are considered egalitarian conservative. But conservative is not a political term in this context, so it is not in opposition to the term liberal. It refers to conservative Judaism, a form of Judaism prevalent in North America that seeks to preserve many traditions and rituals, but with a more flexible interpretation of and approach to Jewish law than that of Orthodox Judaism, the oldest and strictest form. It lies on the ideological spectrum to the left of Orthodox and to the right of Reformed Judaism. This post was edited by Stu Spelling Bee at October 26, 2018 2:59 AM MDT

I am not using conservative in political terms. I am using it as in to keep traditions....as I said you maybe traditional in other issues (rituals) but not keeping the traditions in terms of language.