Discussion » Questions » Legal » What gives lawmakers the right to define morality and impose it upon us?

What gives lawmakers the right to define morality and impose it upon us?

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Posted - August 26, 2019

Responses


  • 10635
    For any law to be a "law", there must be  a standard.  We (the people) put lawmakers in power to enact laws instead of each person being a law unto themselves (each has their own standard of what's tight ans what's wrong).  These lawmakers create the standard.  When they divert away from that standard, we (the people) have fits (for examples, just watch the nightly news).
      August 26, 2019 5:48 PM MDT
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  • 23576

    For some reason, your question made me think of part of the Libertarian political platform -- from what I remember (and I liked the concept) - -  if you're not hurting anyone else, it should be legal.

    Or something like that.
    :)

     
    This post was edited by WelbyQuentin at August 27, 2019 3:41 PM MDT
      August 26, 2019 8:01 PM MDT
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  • 44603
    That reminds me of a favorite author, Robert Heinlein, who wrote in a novel "Don't shoot anyone unnecessarily."
      August 27, 2019 3:45 PM MDT
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  • 23576
    :) Yeah, that sort of fits.

    I looked up a list of his writings. I don't think I've read anything by him. I recognize his name but haven't read him.
    I did like the movie "Starship Troopers," though (if that is a movie based on that title that was on the list).
      August 27, 2019 5:23 PM MDT
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  • 44603
    The movie was actually better than the novel. I read everything he wrote, and some twice. This post was edited by Element 99 at August 27, 2019 5:58 PM MDT
      August 27, 2019 5:55 PM MDT
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  • 23576
    What do you mean by the book being better than the writing?

      August 27, 2019 5:56 PM MDT
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  • 44603
    Oops...fixed it. Thanks.
      August 27, 2019 5:59 PM MDT
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  • 23576
    Oh! Ha!
    I was thinking very deeply on figuring it out, not thinking you had made a mistake.
    :)
    You're welcome.
      August 27, 2019 6:03 PM MDT
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  • 5391
    It is not the duty of lawmakers (in a republic or democracy) to define morality, but as public servants to speak for the morals and values held by their constituents. 

    In a theocracy, as one example, the laws and morals are imposed by the same authority(s). This post was edited by Don Barzini at August 27, 2019 8:23 PM MDT
      August 26, 2019 8:20 PM MDT
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  • 3523
    If a more powerful person or agency takes obvious, unfair advantage of a weaker one, and there is a third Most powerful person or agency working pursuant to a mandate from the wider community, it is good and just that that Most powerful agency should take action to correct the situation, demand restitution, and implement laws to prevent similar situations from arising in the future. It has a moral obligation to do so, in my opinion.  A good example is the virtual enslavement of children during the industrial revolution.  If you don't put limits on what people can to to each other, you have slavery.
      August 26, 2019 8:46 PM MDT
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  • 14795
    Guns,they have them in their millions and you have none...:(
      August 27, 2019 4:17 PM MDT
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  • 34251
    Another reason Americans need to defend our 2nd amendment.
      August 27, 2019 8:22 PM MDT
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  • 34251
    The do not define morals. The pass laws or block laws. We vote for them to be able to do that based on our input. (ideally)
      August 27, 2019 8:33 PM MDT
    0